| From: Matthias Felleisen (matthias at ccs.neu.edu) Date: Tue Sep 30 08:13:09 EDT 2008 |
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On Sep 30, 2008, at 4:07 AM, John Clements wrote: > > I suppose in a logic language you could just define the flatten > function and run it backwards. In principle, as they say, but the results aren't pretty nor interesting. -- Matthias, Mr Prolog in 1983
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