From: Jon Zeppieri (zeppieri at gmail.com) Date: Tue Oct 7 19:35:32 EDT 2008 |
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On Tue, Oct 7, 2008 at 7:27 PM, Mark Engelberg <mark.engelberg at gmail.com> wrote: > > But it is always true that (= k j) implies (eq? k j) purely by > definition of = and eq?. But that's not true. The text you quoted is basically saying (in implementation terms), that the result will always be a fixnum.
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